Annulling of the Former Commandment

Note: I acknowledge that there is no suppose private interpretation of the bible scripture (II Peter 1:20) hence, I subject this writing to other spirit. Should you find my writing to be totally wrong, I would then appreciate if you could correct me and or rebuke me (II Timothy 3:16). Let's reason together (Isaiah 1:18) so as to bring the matter into the light, I can be reach at sherwincablao@gmail.com.

"And indeed those who are of the sons of Levi, who receive the priesthood, have a commandment to receive tithes from the people according to the law, that is, from their brethren, though they have come from the loins of Abraham;”Hebrews 7:5 NKJV

For on the one hand there is an annulling of the former commandment because of its weakness and unprofitableness," Hebrews 7:18 NKJV

Today as I was reading the scripture, It came to me that, yes, indeed it was a commandement for the sons of Levi to receive the tithes of the people. But, in the same chapter verse 18, that commandment has been annulled or invalidated meaning, tithing should not be practice anymore because of its weakness and unprofitability. Take note both NKJV and KJV use the word "commandment" implying that the word "commandment" on verse 18 could be or is referring to the commandment as stated in verse 5. Moreover, the word commandment in verse 18 is in a SINGULAR form hence, implying that only one commandment did change and that commandment was mentioned in verse 5. If anyone dispute that the word commandment in verse 18 does not refer to the commandment as referred in verse 5 on the same chapter then, what is that one commandment referred in verse 18 that has been annulled - declared invalid?

Indeed, Jesus did not come to destroy the law but there was change in the law, see link: Jesus did not come to destroy the law. And, as explain above, it was perhaps one of the changes in the old law as stated in Hebrews 7:12. “For the priesthood being changed, of necessity there is also a change of the law.” Do note that, If I'm not mistaken, the mosaic laws basically contains commandments from the lord. So, when there is a change in the law, it could mean that one or few of the commandments from the lord will not be applicable or will be invalidated. And, since Jesus who became the new priest was not from the line of Levi rather from the line of Judah, all the commandment and laws relating and exclusive to levites became not applicable to the new priest. Hence, Jesus has all the right to impose new law, a law of grace to which ...there is the bringing in of a better hope, through which we draw near to God.” Hebrews 7:19 NKJV. 

Don't you think so?

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