In these verse, it is explained that, if priest is change out of necessity, that is not descended from the line of priest which is from Aaron, the law also changes. As law on priesthood was given to the tribe of Levi, the Law will not be applicable to the new priest (Jesus Christ) which descended from the line of Judah “For it is evident that our Lord arose from Judah, of which tribe Moses spoke nothing concerning priesthood. And it is yet far more evident if, in the likeness of Melchizedek, there arises another priest who has come, not according to the law of a fleshly commandment, but according to the power of an endless life. For He testifies: “You are a priest forever According to the order of Melchizedek."Hebrews 7:14-17 NKJV
But, how much of it did change or what was the changes in the law? In the old testament it says:
“So it was, when Moses had completed writing the words of this law in a book, when they were finished, that Moses commanded the Levites, who bore the ark of the covenant of the LORD, saying: “Take this Book of the Law, and put it beside the ark of the covenant of the LORD your God, that it may be there as a witness against you; for I know your rebellion and your stiff neck. If today, while I am yet alive with you, you have been rebellious against the LORD, then how much more after my death? Gather to me all the elders of your tribes, and your officers, that I may speak these words in their hearing and call heaven and earth to witness against them. For I know that after my death you will become utterly corrupt, and turn aside from the way which I have commanded you. And evil will befall you in the latter days, because you will do evil in the sight of the LORD, to provoke Him to anger through the work of your hands.” Deuteronomy 31:24-29 NKJV
So moses instruct levites to put the book of law beside the arc of the covenant. Inside the arc were tablets of the law, Aaron's rod and the manna. The content of the book of the Law is spread among the books of Exodus, Leviticus, and Numbers, and then reiterated and added to in Deuteronomy. This includes:
- The Ten Commandments
- Moral laws - on murder, theft, honesty, adultery, etc.
- Social laws - on property, inheritance, marriage and divorce,
- Food laws - on what is clean and unclean, on cooking and storing food.
- Purity laws - on menstruation, seminal emissions, skin disease and mildew, etc.
- Feasts - the Day of Atonement, Passover, Feast of Tabernacles, Feast of Unleavened Bread, Feast of Weeks etc.
- Sacrifices and offerings - the sin offering, burnt offering, whole offering, heave offering, Passover sacrifice, meal offering, wave offering, peace offering, drink offering, thank offering, dough offering, incense offering, red heifer, scapegoat, first fruits, etc.
- Instructions for the priesthood and the high priest including tithes.
- Instructions regarding the Tabernacle, and which were later applied to the Temple in Jerusalem, including those concerning the Holy of Holies containing the Ark of the Covenant(in which were the tablets of the law, Aaron's rod, the manna). Instructions and for the construction of various altars.
- Forward looking instructions for time when Israel would demand a king.
Now, if priesthood is change that is not from the line of levi to which the priesthood law was only given to them. It would follow that all the written laws regarding priesthood will not be applicable to the new priest. Therefore, 7,8 and 9 content of the law changes. The 10 commandments written in the book of law which was also inside the arc of the covenant will always be applicable and cannot be change since its for all and not to a specific tribe only. When in the new testament it says:
“But when the Pharisees heard that He had silenced the Sadducees, they gathered together. Then one of them, a lawyer, asked Him a question, testing Him, and saying, “Teacher, which is the great commandment in the law?” Jesus said to him, “ ‘You shall love the LORD your God with all your heart, with all your soul, and with all your mind.’ This is the first and great commandment. And the second is like it: ‘You shall love your neighbor as yourself.’ On these two commandments hang all the Law and the Prophets.” Matthew 22:34-40 NKJV
In the verses above, notice that it says "commandment in the law" implying that the lawyer was referring to the overall law given to them by moses. There are no words that imply that He cut down the number of commandments into two. Instead He simply says, among the commandment of the Law the two are the greatest and all the laws and prophets hang on, rely, and was breakdown from these two greatest law. Its like all other laws are subclauses of these two laws.
I also understand that in "Deuteronomy 31:16-18", God already foresee that levites and the people will be rebellious against the lord after Moses death even so while Moses yet living they rebel against the Lord thus, moses instruct the levites to place the book of law beside the arc of the covenant to be read every 7 years as witness against them, meaning in this book of law, it is written as an evidence before it happen that they (the levites and people of Israel) will rebel against the lord. When that time happen, the book will serve as a witness. Its like they are guilty of the crime the have not yet even committed as God see's it before it happen. Therefore, all the while God knew whats about to happen and that the system in place are not perfect, there was indeed a necessity to change it.
A system as we all knew composes of the one who made the system and the people who follow the system, in this case if I put in a plane perspective levitical priesthood is a system whereby, God made the system, He appointed levites as priest and as inheritance was the tithes. And, the one who follow the system were the levites. But, levites somehow unable to follow the system and in the process they departed from God's way as the bible say:
“But you have departed from the way; You have caused many to stumble at the law. You have corrupted the covenant of Levi,” Says the LORD of hosts. “Therefore I also have made you contemptible and base Before all the people, Because you have not kept My ways But have shown partiality in the law.”Malachi 2:8-9 NKJV"
When the verse say "corrupted the covenant of Levi", for me, it means corruption in every sense, it could be that, they ask more of their inheritance, meaning they require people to give more than tenth of everything, teach the people falsely, receives something for a favour or whatever it was that defile their covenant with God. Basically, the appointment of their priesthood and the inheritance than comes alongs with it somehow cause them to be corrupted. And then, I remember this verse:
“Remove falsehood and lies far from me; Give me neither poverty nor riches— Feed me with the food allotted to me; Lest I be full and deny You, And say, “Who is the LORD?” Or lest I be poor and steal, And profane the name of my God.”Proverbs 30:8-9 NKJV"
Here, the levites could ask back God and may say " Lord why did you appoint me as priest, Lord why did give me an inheritance, Lord why did you give me this responsibility to which you knew yourself that somehow It will cause me to be corrupted?
We all have tendency as mortals, this best shown in politics, the law itself and system of politics sometimes, however pure the intention is in the beginning, along the way the one in position has the tendency to be corrupted. That is why, many christians are afraid or hesitant to go into the system of politics. In the case of levites, they were appointed by God himself to be in the system, it was not voluntary, it was not a choice but a force responsibility that comes along with the inheritance of tithe. So, in this case, levites which are merely mortals could ask back God, "Lord why did You gave the position of priesthood along with the inheritance, we did not ask for it, You did not even gave us a choice, it was mandatory, You are the one who appoint us to be the priest of the people and You knew it very well that we are going to be corrupted somehow in the future, yet, in-spite of You being aware of it, You still gave us the position, it was like we were purposely trapped to be destroy in the future? In this case, levites has something to throw back to God, I believe this is one of the imperfection in the levitical system, that is why there was a need for a change.
So now, as Christ as our high priest, if we still patterned it in levitical priesthood system whereby those assigned to minister the word of God still in essence have the rights to receive inheritance of tithes and should it cause the minister to be corrupted (it may not be his generation, maybe the next or the next), if the minister ask God the same questions as the levites. I think God will simply say, "Why, did I force you or obliged you to be my minister? Did I ask you to collect money in my behalf, or did I gave any mortal except levites the rights to collect something in behalf of me? The only mortal person I receive it was from Abraham after I blessed him and, the only mortals I allowed to collect it in behalf of me was the levites. Now that I personally step in as priest replacing the levites, who give the authorisation for any mortal to collect in behalf of me? Perhaps, this verse also best fit God's answers:
“Not everyone who says to Me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ shall enter the kingdom of heaven, but he who does the will of My Father in heaven. Many will say to Me in that day, ‘Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in Your name, cast out demons in Your name, and done many wonders in Your name?’ And then I will declare to them, ‘I never knew you; depart from Me, you who practice lawlessness!'Matthew 7:21-23 NKJV"
In the bible it also says:
“Do not think that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill. For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the law till all is fulfill.” Matthew 5:17-18 NKJV
He indeed not came to destroy the law or the prophets but to fulfil. In the old testament it was prophesize
“But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, Though you are little among the thousands of Judah, Yet out of you shall come forth to Me The One to be Ruler in Israel, Whose goings forth are from of old, From everlasting.”Micah 5:2 NKJV"
And, it happened that He came but not descended from the line of priest (levites) but descended from the line Judah as prophecies in which, there was no law concerning priesthood from this tribe. What law then is He going to destroy, when in in the first place there was no priesthood law written for priest that will come from the line of Judah? He did fulfill the prophecies but, in effect, He has all the right to change the priesthood law, as the bible say: "In that He says, “A new covenant,” He has made the first obsolete. Now what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away.” Hebrews 8:13 NKJV
So, in summary. First, Melchizedek the High priest, physically manifested to bless Abraham and for Him to give the tenth of His plunder. Then, comes the levitical priest who was mortal and for them to live, the tithes of Israel was given to them for them to eat but, the levitical priest were not perfect thus, having the necessity to change the priest. Jesus Christ, become the priest in the like of Melchizedek who lives forever in replacement of Levitical priest. Jesus in not a descendant from Aaron rather from Judah, therefore, the priesthood law given to Aaron changes or not applicable to the New priest since He is from the other tribe, the tribe of Judah. As the bible say “For it is evident that our Lord arose from Judah, of which tribe Moses spoke nothing concerning priesthood.-Hebrews 7:14 NKJV". After His earthly ministry and was resurrected, He stayed with us spiritually. Having said that, unlike Melchizedek and the levitical priest who received tithes physically, Jesus who lives with us eternally in spirit will not be able to received it nor even needs it.
An illustration shown is the transition from Melchizedek to Jesus:
So, with this illustration, in essence it would follow that Abraham actually give the tithes to Jesus Christ since He is God who exist from the beginning of time. It would also seem that Jesus genealogy, the process of transition from levitical priesthood to Jesus as written in Hebrew 7 would really not matter or of no purpose. Also, since tithes is for our God now therefore removing the levites from the picture, it made me wonder, if levites is not in the picture already, why do we still even say "minister of God are in essence levites therefore have the right to receive tithes as the levites did" when they were already remove from the picture? Nevertheless, it was indeed a privilege for Abraham to give his tithes to the One who lives forever. Since there is no more levitical priest, we are actually giving directly our tithes to God now. My question here though is this, Is there such existing mortal in todays time who is in the like of Melchizedek a priest who lives continually who is worthy to be given and or receive the tithes of the people? In Abraham time, his tithes was receive by Melchizedek who is made like the son of God. In Moses time, the levites who are mere mortals and imperfect was allowed to receive the tithes. In today’s time, Jesus Christ who is in order of Melchizedek is the rightful receiver of tithes. It made me wonder, who give the authorisation for any mortal to receive the tithes in behalf of Jesus Christ who lives eternally? We certainly cannot say anymore “ they are like levites so they have the rights to receive it” when they were already replaced by Christ, therefore, removing their responsibility as priest together with their right to receive the tithes-their inheritance.
If none, that brings me to question 1.
Question 1: So now, our high priest both for the living and spiritual world is Jesus Christ. Jesus Christ eternally live forever. As per the bible, since levitical priesthood is not perfect, there was a need for a rise of another priest which now is Jesus Christ, therefore, since He lives forever there is no more mortal person that can and will be able to replace Him, His position is fixed forever and there is only One and only One high priest. Jesus step in as a high priest when His mission on earth was finish, that is when He was resurrected after 3 days as the bible say: “For if He were on earth, He would not be a priest, since there are priests who offer the gifts according to the law;” Hebrews 8:4 NKJV". Even after God mission was accomplish, by that time there were still levitical priest practicing and following the law, one of it was to receive the tithes as it was their inheritance. My question is, since Christ already step in as High priest, does the levites still have the rights to claim their inheritance even if they were already strip off from their position as priests? Remember, Jesus did not descend from levites but from Judah in which there was no Law that was speak of regarding priesthood. After Jesus step in, the priesthood law that was exclusive only to levites was basically invalidated as it was not applicable to the new priest. “In that He says, “A new covenant,” He has made the first obsolete. Now what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away.” Hebrews 8:13 NKJV
Question 2: If the answer is "Yes" in Q1, please explain as it would seem like we are not acknowledging that their is an existing alive High priest in midst of us in Jesus Name to whom because of His existence, the levitical priesthood law was abolished.
If the answer is "No" in Q1, since the levites was strip off of their inheritance and since we are spiritual brethren of Israel, therefore, those ministering the words are in essence levites. What right do we still have to claim that those ministering the word are still in essence have the right to receive the tithes when our spiritual brethren the levites itself was already strip off with their privilege and or inheritance?
Before I go on further with my other questions, I'll stop with with the above questions, after all, if the conclusion in the above questions imply that "no mortal has the right to receive tithes". All my follow up questions will be hindered useless, it means, we don't even need to discuss the importance of it, or are we robbing God or quote any tithe verse that is from the old testament. It will all becomes pointless to discuss. It will bring up another question though, How can we give our tithe then? Since Abraham tithe to Jesus, we are not exempted it is still our obligation or is it? Which bring me to my explanation below.
A tithing is a principle whereby for the process to occur. It requires a giver and receiver. It is an obligation to the giver and a right to the receiver. The first giver was Abraham and the receiver was Melchizedek. The 2nd was the people of Israel and receiver are the levites. 3rd, the giver of tithe are Christians and the receiver is Jesus Christ. The closest mortal person worthy or was allowed to receive it was the levites, yet, they were abolished. Now, no mortal person worthy of receiving it anymore. Therefore, if no mortal person is claiming the rights to receive it, it would follow that the obligation to give was also annulled. Its like, when someone resigned in a company, the resigned person has no more rights to claim for the salary at the same time the company has no obligation to give the salary.
The bible say:
“For every high priest is appointed to offer both gifts and sacrifices. Therefore it is necessary that this One also have something to offer. For if He were on earth, He would not be a priest, since there are priests who offer the gifts according to the law; who serve the copy and shadow of the heavenly things, as Moses was divinely instructed when he was about to make the tabernacle. For He said, “See that you make all things according to the pattern shown you on the mountain.” Hebrews 8:3-5 NKJV"
In the verses above, it says that: Levitical High priest is appointed to offer both gifts and sacrifices. If high priest are required to do such activity the incoming high priest (Jesus Christ) will not be exempted because what the high priest are doing are copy and shadow of what of the heavenly things. But, while He is still on earth and the mission is not yet finish, He cannot be priest since there are levitical priest who offer the gifts according to the Law. Therefore, what the priest are currently doing while He still on earth, He cannot override. So, in the bible it says: "
"Woe to you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! For you pay tithe of mint and anise and cummin, and have neglected the weightier matters of the law: justice and mercy and faith. These you ought to have done, without leaving the others undone.”Matthew 23:23 NKJV"
This is Jesus himself talking, He was still on earth. He have no right yet to intervene of what they are doing, the law is still valid thus, the tithes which is a rightful inheritance of the levites still need to be given.
In analogy, I would explain it in this way, suppose in a company a new CEO is about to replace an existing CEO, the effectivity of his term as new CEO is next month. Does the CEO to be replace has still all the rights to be paid until the last day of his term? He does right, the incoming CEO cannot intervene or cut off his salary while the existing CEO is still in position right? Since we are talking about tithes not offering nor giving to which it is an inheritance of the levites in lay mans term a salary to them as a priest, the logic is the same. This is why God said, we ought to do important matters but don't also forget to do lesser matter like paying your obligation to the levites - the tithes.
In fact, until His mission on earth was not yet finish, He would not step in as a high priest since there are priest who offer gifts according to the law. All the verses that relates to tithing from old including the book of Malachi up to the new testament (Matthew, Mark, Luke, John) where He was still on earth was still applicable. The priest were still in service therefore, they still have the right to receive the tithes and Israel was still obliged to pay the tithes. When His mission was finish, the veil was torn down. This time around, all the duties and responsibilities including tithing was transferred to Jesus Christ, this time around all the offerings; sin offering, heave offering, trespass offering and all other offering which was only receive by levites was transferred to Jesus. He did not just replace an specific offering, did He? Instead He replaces the earthly priest therefore, all the duties and responsibilities including their inheritance was transferred to Jesus Christ, this is why today we don't do these offerings rituals anymore because it was already done by Jesus when He offered Himself, but somehow the tithing to which the only rightful recipient now is Jesus Christ is being received by us mortals. We acknowledge that those offerings should not be done already as it was already transferred to Jesus Christ and there is no worthy mortal that can receive and perform those offerings but our God Jesus, except for tithing? Did Jesus take only the responsibilities of the levites and did not take the inheritance when He take over as the high priest? Or did Our God, give an authorization for any mortal to receive it in behalf of Him? As per the bible, Melchizedek which Is Jesus also, the Levites (which He replaces already) and Now Jesus Christ were the only worthy and allowed to receive the tithes, yet today, it is receive by merely mortals?
The Sanctity of Tithing
For me, the sanctity of tithing should be treated to be the same as the burnt offering, sin offering, trespass offering and other sacred offerings. The reasons why we are not practicing these offerings is exactly the same as why we should not practice tithing. The right to receive these offerings and tithes were only given to the levitical priest which is now the right of Jesus Christ and Him only. If we acknowledged that those offerings should not be done already as we are like not reverencing or disrespecting what He had done for us (the receiving and offering of Himself as the one time offering for our sins), it should be the same on tithing. No mortal person has the right to receive it other than Jesus Christ Himself, the same as the right that was only for Him when He receive Himself as one time offering to redeem us from our sins.
Apostle Paul Rights to Live by the Gospel
In the new testament it says:
“Do I say these things as a mere man? Or does not the law say the same also? For it is written in the law of Moses, “You shall not muzzle an ox while it treads out the grain.” Is it oxen God is concerned about? Or does He say it altogether for our sakes? For our sakes, no doubt, this is written, that he who plows should plow in hope, and he who threshes in hope should be partaker of his hope. If we have sown spiritual things for you, is it a great thing if we reap your material things? If others are partakers of this right over you, are we not even more? Nevertheless we have not used this right, but endure all things lest we hinder the gospel of Christ. Do you not know that those who minister the holy things eat of the things of the temple, and those who serve at the altar partake of the offerings of the altar? Even so the Lord has commanded that those who preach the gospel should live from the gospel. But I have used none of these things, nor have I written these things that it should be done so to me; for it would be better for me to die than that anyone should make my boasting void. For if I preach the gospel, I have nothing to boast of, for necessity is laid upon me; yes, woe is me if I do not preach the gospel! For if I do this willingly, I have a reward; but if against my will, I have been entrusted with a stewardship. What is my reward then? That when I preach the gospel, I may present the gospel of Christ without charge, that I may not abuse my authority in the gospel.” I Corinthians 9:8-18 NKJV
Notice the verses highlighted in bold. I’m not sure if its just me or what but, I kinda observed that we use the verses 1 corinthians 9:13-14 to defend the rights of the minister of words to live or get their maintenance from the gospel since they preach the gospel. But, seemingly missed out the next verses,15 to 18. In verse 15, Apostle Paul expounded further and said "But I have not made use of any of these privileges, nor am I writing this [to suggest] that any such provision be made for me [now]. For it would be better for me to die than to have anyone make void and deprive me of my [ground for] glorifying [in this matter].” 1 Corinthians" 9:15 AMP. And, state further in verse 18, that he present the gospel of Christ without charge or free of expense and that he may not abuse his authority in the gospel.
I'm sorry but I have to ask, is not the apostles our model as christians, if they don't claim this right as they may hinder the gospel of christ, why are we claiming the rights? Are we greater than the first apostles?
Finally, My Conclusion but Subject for Correction and Enlightenment.
Giving 1/10 of every thing was not really preach nor practice even during the book of acts. In fact, In the new testament, giving willingly, heartily was preach and practice but they are not required to pay tenth every harvest. Give as you are able, willingly and cheerfully to the lesser of our brethren was emphasise by Jesus himself, these we ought to do if we wish to give and please Him. As the bible say: “But do not forget to do good and to share, for with such sacrifices God is well pleased.” Hebrews 13:16 NKJV. It doesn't matter how many percentage or how much, what matter is the willingness and heartily intention to give. In my opinion, this new covenant requirement is even greater than the time of the law because if we are to give heartily, it removes the limit of how many percentage we should give. If the person has many possession and sis willing to follow Jesus, giving heartily would cause him to give it all not a certain percentage only. In my opinion, perhaps Jesus did replace the tithing by giving willingly, as what the heart desire and as we are able, its not mandatory and whatever we gives, for God to receive it, it has to be given heartily to the least of our brethren and or the poor. In my opinion, maybe Jesus purposely change it for the reason that we human tend to change or be corrupted. I'm not saying all but most of I observe whereby tithing becomes mandatory, once the congregation get bigger, the leader get richer and while the leader are blessed, it can be observed that most of the members are struggling to cope up with their daily lives yet they are faithful in tithing. From perspective coming from the member of the congregation, it will probably look upon to be nothing or not visible at all even if they themselves are struggling because they look up and trust their leader so much but, from the outsider perspective it will be look upon to be something is off. Perhaps, God knows it from the start, these maybe the reason why He did not requires it in the new covenant rather giving by the heart and giving to the poor.
Lastly, I came to understand also that tithing as practiced today is a way of showing how great our faith and love to our Lord, it seems like it doesn't really matter whether the principle is valid or not as long as the heart is right, it will still be acceptable, its useless anyway to tithe if our heart does not want to give our tithe. While I agree some of it, I also understand that faith and love is a two way communication, having a great faith and loving someone does not totally means our faith and love are acceptable or correct to that someone. Like say, a devoted catholic who have great faith and love to God, yet the faith and love if biblically based is wrong and need to be corrected. Like say, a Christian who believe in trinity but have great faith and Love to Jesus, however that christian show his/her faith and love in heart and action, he/she still need to be corrected. What I'm trying to say is that, we mortals are not perfect, however big and developed our faith and love is, from time to time it should still be subject and open for correction. I guess we are fortunate, because all that He wants, all that He requires of us that is acceptable are written in the bible. It's only up to us to decipher correctly what is that He really need from us that will not be in VAIN and is acceptable to Him for us to show correctly our faith and love. I'm not saying that my one is correct either, this is why I'm not relying on my own understanding thus, sharing this writing to other spirits so as to test it in every sense if it's biblically correct or not, from God or not. I knew that my faith maybe not ripe, perhaps my love to our Lord is not yet fully budding but, before it comes to that point, I want it to be as much as possible in line as what the bible say without adding and subtracting and even if my faith and love reach the point of maturity, I will still subject it and open for correction as long as the explanations are biblically make sense. I will still open my mind and heart to amend my faith and Love to God to make it proper and greater that is acceptable to Him.
If by the end of the day, all the spirit that was able to read and understand this writing cannot sensibly explain if tithing is valid or not, or does not really give a direct answer. I will hold on to this belief and will not practice it but, offering, giving, pledging as what my heart desire and as I am able for the purpose of helping others and spreading the gospel these, I will honour and will practice as I realised that, in fact tithing should be considered sacred only worthy to be receive by Jesus Christ, the same as how He was the only worthy offering which He Himself can ONLY receive as a one time offering for our sins, unless, someone can explain to me sensibly and biblically that it really is valid. I’m still and will always be open to listen and discuss it and correct my belief.
I believe this is from God, and since He is the final authority, I will follow as what He made me understand. But, should other spirit feel like that this is not from God, or should your spirit feel like I am being mislead or I'm being deceive or my understanding is wrong, please, I ask for enlightenment and provide sensible answer to the questions posted. I believe that, there can be no two version of truth that contradict each other, either one is correct and the other is wrong but cannot be both correct. In this case, if my understanding to which I subject to other spirits are acceptable or correct, it means the opposing understanding must be wrong or vice versa. The holy spirit cannot reveal two opposing truth right? This is why I really need to clarify and here, I have laid out the biblical explanations why I think it's not valid to practice in today's time in fact, we should respect its sanctity as Jesus is the only rightful recipient to it therefore, no mortal should receive it in behalf of Him. But, should I be wrong, I seek biblical explanation that proves otherwise, clarification and answers to the questions posted that are reasonably and biblically make sense.
I have posted my email address above, you can email me if anyone have a sensible and biblical answer to my questions. It is my heart desire to be enlightened. God bless us all.
-end-
Written by: Sherwin Saul Cablao
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